Full PDF Download – Re Neet 2026 Paper with Solutions
1. An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational
and f number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities CP/CV of the gas is 8/7, then the value of f is:
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4
Answer is (4)
2. One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale
is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in
such a way that 4th Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures
the length of the wire to be 1 cm, the actual length of the wire is :
(1) 0.96 cm (2) 1.00 cm
(3) 1.04 cm (4) 0.60 cm
Answer (No option is correct)
- Three identical p-n junction diodes D1, D2, and D3 are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If
the width of the depletion regions of D1, D2 and D3 are W1, W2 and W3, respectively, then the correct option
is:
(1) W3 = W1 > W2 (2) W3 > W2 > W1
(3) W2 > W1 = W3 (4) W1 > W2 > W3
Answer (2)
4. Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is $m$ kg and the spring constant is $k \text{ N m}^{-1}$. At a given instant, the extension of the spring is $x$ meter and the speed of the particle is $v \text{ m s}^{-1}$. On the $x – v$ plane, if the graph of $v$ as a function of $x$ is a circle, then the correct option is:
1: $k = m$
2: $k = m^2$
3: $k = \sqrt{m}$
4: $k = \frac{1}{m}$
Answer (1)
5. An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, $\varepsilon_r = 9$, has the electric field, $E_x = E_0 \sin(kz – 2\pi \times 10^6 t) \text{ V m}^{-1}$ where $E_0$ is the amplitude and $k$ is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is:
1: The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is $300 \text{ m}$
2: The magnetic field is given by the relation $B_y = \frac{E_0}{v} \sin(kz – 2\pi \times 10^6 t)$ where $v$ is the speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium
3: The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along $+z$
4: The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is $10^8 \text{ m s}^{-1}$
Answer (1)
6. A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point $A \left(\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point $B \left(\theta = -\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$. During this time, which of the following figures schematically represents the magnitude of the total linear momentum $P$ of the system, as a function of $\theta$?
Answer (2)
7. In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered $\alpha$-particles $N(\theta)$ is plotted as a function of scattering angle $\theta$. Which of the following options represents the correct plot?
Answer (2)
- Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices 1, 1.25, and 1.5 respectively. The medium Q having a thickness of 5 cm is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth of O is h1. For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is h2. The value of |h1 – h2|, in cm, is:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0
Answer (1)
9. Consider that $\sigma_s$, $k_B$, $b$ represents Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien’s displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of $\sigma_s k_B^{-1} b$ is
(1) $[L^{-1}K^{-2}]$
(2) $[L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-3}]$
(3) $[L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-4}]$
(4) $[L^{-1}T^{-1}K^{-2}]$
Answer (4)
10. For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is n and that for the 9th
harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is m, the ratio n/m is
(1) 9/5
(2) 1
(3) 3/5
(4) 5/9
Answer (2)
11. Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents $I$ and $2I$, respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length $\lambda$ and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is kept fixed at a height $h$ above the floor. The minimum magnitude of $h$ so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is:
[ $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity and $\mu_0$ is the permeability of free space. ]
(1) $\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}$
(2) $\frac{2\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}$
(3) $\frac{4\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}$
(4) $\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}$
Answer (1)
12. An ac voltage $V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t)$ Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is:
(Given: $L = 10 \text{ mH}$, $C = 25 \text{ } \mu\text{F}$, $R = 100 \text{ } \Omega$)
(1) $5.5 \text{ A}$
(2) $11.0 \text{ A}$
(3) $22.0 \text{ A}$
(4) $2.2 \text{ A}$
Answer (4)
13. Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius $R$ and total charge $+Q$. A point charge $-q$ $(q \ll Q)$ with mass $m$ is released from rest at a distance of $3R$ from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is:
($\epsilon_0$ is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).
(1) $\sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}$
(2) $\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}$
(3) $\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}$
(4) $\sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi\epsilon_0 m R}}$
Answer (2)
14. A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time $t$, then variation of the photocurrent $I$ and magnitude of the stopping potential $V$ with time is best represented by:
Answer (4)
15. Two planets $P_1$ and $P_2$ with equal mass have radii $R_1$ and $R_2$, respectively, where $R_2 = \frac{R_1}{2}$. The escape speeds of $P_1$ and $P_2$ are $v_1$ and $v_2$, respectively. Then $\frac{v_2}{v_1}$ is:
(1) $1$
(2) $\sqrt{2}$
(3) $2$
(4) $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
Answer (2)
16. A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius $R$, having uniform positive charge density $\rho$, as shown in the figure. The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distance $2R$ and $3R$ respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is $\frac{\rho R^2}{n\epsilon_0}$. The value of $n$ is:
($\epsilon_0$ is the permittivity of vacuum)
(1) $6$
(2) $9$
(3) $18$
(4) $2$
Answer (3)
17. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is:
(1) $500 \text{ J}$
(2) $600 \text{ J}$
(3) $800 \text{ J}$
(4) $400 \text{ J}$
Answer (2)
18. The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.
| Part of the electromagnetic spectrum | Applications |
| P. Microwave | I. For purifying the water |
| Q. UV rays | II. For warming the food |
| R. Gamma rays | III. For AM and FM communication systems |
| S. Radio wave | IV. For treating the Cancer cells |
The correct option is:
(1) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
(2) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(3) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
(4) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
Answer (2)
19. A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius $50 \text{ m}$, which is banked at an angle $\theta$. If the car travels at a speed $10 \text{ m s}^{-1}$, then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be $10 \text{ m s}^{-2}$, the value of $\theta$ is:
(1) $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)$
(2) $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)$
(3) $\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{3})$
(4) $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)$
Answer (4)
20. Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by $s(t) = \alpha t^2 – \beta t + \gamma$ where $\alpha = 1 \text{ m s}^{-2}$, $\beta = 6 \text{ m s}^{-1}$ and $\gamma = 5 \text{ m}$. The average speed of the particle, in $\text{m s}^{-1}$ from $t = 0$ to $t = 6 \text{ s}$ is:
(1) $6$
(2) $3$
(3) $0$
(4) $12$
Answer (2)
21. A point charge $Q$ is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are $E_A$, $E_B$, $E_C$, respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:
(1) $E_A \neq 0$, $E_B = E_C$
(2) $E_A = 0$, $E_B > E_C$
(3) $E_A \neq 0$, $E_B < E_C$
(4) $E_A = 0$, $E_B = E_C$
Answer (1)
22. In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity ($v$) with the ratio of density of spherical ball ($\sigma$) to density of the liquid ($\rho$), is best represented by:
Answer (4)
23. A ray of light with wavelength $\lambda$ is incident on three different photoelectric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these photoelectric cells are $\lambda_1$, $\lambda_2$ and $\lambda_3$ respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are $V_1$, $V_2$ and $V_3$, respectively. The relation between $\lambda$ and threshold wavelengths are $\lambda_1 < \lambda$, $\lambda_2 > \lambda$ and $\lambda_3 \gg \lambda$. The correct option is:
(1) $V_1 = 0$, $V_2 > V_3$
(2) $V_1 > V_2$, $V_3 = 0$
(3) $V_1 < V_2$, $V_3 = 0$
(4) $V_1 = 0$, $V_2 < V_3$
Answer (4)
24. A current $I_0$ flows through a metallic circular loop of radius $r$ as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the loop is:
(1) $\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}$
(2) $\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}$
(3) $\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2\pi r}$
(4) $\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}$
Answer (4)
25. A particle of mass $M$ moves along a horizontal x axis from $x = 0$ to $x = L$. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as a function of $x$ as $\mu_k(x) = \mu_0 – \alpha x$, where $\mu_0, \alpha$ are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that $\mu_k(L) = 0$. The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is $n \mu_0 MgL$, where $g$ is the acceleration due to gravity. The value of $n$ is:
(1) $1$
(2) $\frac{1}{3}$
(3) $\frac{1}{2}$
(4) [Option missing in source]
Answer (3)
26. In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius $R$ is proportional to:
(1) $R^{3/2}$
(2) $R^2$
(3) $R^3$
(4) $R^{1/2}$
Answer (1)
27. A solid sphere A of radius $R$ and mass $M$ is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius $r < R$ and mass $m < M$. Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is $I_A$ and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is $I_B$. The difference $I_A – I_B$ is:
(1) $(m-M)(R+r)^2$
(2) $(m-M)(R-r)^2$
(3) $0$
(4) $(M-m)(R+r)^2$
Answer (1)
28. The lens combination as shown in the figure, consists of two lenses, $L_1$ and $L_2$, of the focal lengths $+10 \text{ cm}$ and $-10 \text{ cm}$, respectively. The position of the image formed is:
[INSERT IMAGE Q28 HERE]
(1) $60 \text{ cm}$ to the left of the concave lens
(2) $30 \text{ cm}$ to the right of the concave lens
(3) $60 \text{ cm}$ to the right of the concave lens
(4) $20 \text{ cm}$ to the left of the concave lens
Answer (1)
29. An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of $-3 \text{ V}$ is reverse biased with a negative input voltage $V_i = -5 \text{ V}$. The magnitude of voltage difference between point B and A is:
(1) $2 \text{ V}$
(2) $1 \text{ V}$
(3) $0 \text{ V}$
(4) 3V
Answer (1)
30. Three identical capacitors, P, Q and S, each of the capacitance $C$, are connected to a battery of voltage $V$ as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are $U_P$ and $U_T$, respectively, then the ratio $\frac{U_P}{U_T}$ is:
(1) $1/3$
(2) $1/2$
(3) $1/6$
(4) $2/3$
Answer (3)
31. A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the $x-y$ plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the $z$ direction. The area of the loop varies with time $t$, as $A = A_0(1 + \sin t)$ in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power $P$ dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:
Answer (1)
32. Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, $+\alpha$, while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient, $-\alpha$, as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by $I_A$ and $I_B$. At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is $R_0$. As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is:
(1) $I_A$ decreases while $I_B$ increases
(2) $I_A$ increases while $I_B$ decreases
(3) Both $I_A$ and $I_B$ remain constant
(4) $I_A$ remains constant while $I_B$ increases
Answer (4)
33. Bob B of mass $m$ at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length $10 \text{ m}$, as shown in the figure. Point mass A of mass $m$ travelling horizontally with speed $10 \text{ m s}^{-1}$ hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises $h$ meter after the collision. Taking the acceleration due to gravity $g = 10 \text{ m s}^{-2}$ and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of $h$ is:
(1) $7$
(2) $5$
(3) $2.5$
(4) $8$
Answer (2)
34. A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density $\rho_1$. If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period $T$. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density $\rho_2$, then the similar oscillation has time period $2T$. The value of $\rho_2/\rho_1$ is:
(1) $2$
(2) $1/2$
(3) $1/4$
(4) $4$
Answer (3)
35. The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of B. If number densities of the gases A and B are $n_A$ and $n_B$ respectively, the correct option is:
(1) $n_A = 2n_B$
(2) $n_A = \frac{1}{4}n_B$
(3) $n_A = \frac{1}{2}n_B$
(4) $n_A = n_B$
Answer (3)
36. Consider the following nuclear reaction:
$$^{238}\text{U} \longrightarrow ^{234}\text{Th} + ^{4}\text{He}$$
Take masses of $^{238}\text{U}$, $^{234}\text{Th}$ and $^{4}\text{He}$ as $238.050 \text{ u}$, $234.043 \text{ u}$ and $4.003 \text{ u}$, respectively. The $Q$ value for the reaction, in $\text{keV}$, is:
[Given: $1 \text{ u} = 931.5 \text{ MeV c}^{-2}$]
(1) $3730$
(2) $3736$
(3) $3740$
(4) $3726$
Answer (4)
37. Consider a long solenoid of length $l$ and radius $r$. If $n$ is the number of turns per unit length and $\mu_0$ is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is:
(1) $\mu_0 n^2 r^2 l$
(2) $(\mu_0 / 2\pi) n^2 r^2 l$
(3) $2\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l$
(4) $\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l$
Answer (4)
38. Which of the following measurements require ‘index correction’?
(1) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
(2) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
(3) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
(4) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
Answer (2)
39. The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius $R$ is increased by a small amount $\Delta T$. If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is $\alpha$, the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:
(1) $3\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T$
(2) $4\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T$
(3) $6\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T$
(4) $2\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T$
Answer (2)
40. A photon and an electron, each of $20 \text{ eV}$ energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron $p_e$ to that of photon $p_{ph}$, $\frac{p_e}{p_{ph}}$, is:
[Take speed of light $= 3 \times 10^8 \text{ m s}^{-1}$, charge of electron $= 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C}$ and mass of electron $= 9 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg}$]
(1) $\frac{1}{250}$
(2) $225$
(3) $275$
(4) $\frac{2}{450}$
Answer (2)
41. Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity $\sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 \text{ m s}^{-1}$. The radius of the orbit is $x \times 10^{-9} \text{ m}$. The value of $x$ is:
[Take the mass of electron to be $9 \times 10^{-31} \text{ kg}$, charge of electron $= -1.6 \times 10^{-19} \text{ C}$ and $\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 \text{ N m}^2 \text{ C}^{-2}$]
(1) $3$
(2) $2$
(3) $1$
(4) $4$
Answer (3)
42. Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current $I(t)$ is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is $E_P$ and that for configuration Q is $E_Q$. The ratio $E_P/E_Q$ is:
[Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]
(1) $\frac{1}{2}$
(2) $1$
(3) $2$
(4) $\frac{1}{4}$
Answer (3)
43. In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas ($\gamma = 5/3$) decreases from $60 \text{ K}$ to $50 \text{ K}$. The work done by the gas in the process is:
(Take the universal gas constant as $R = 8.3 \text{ J mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1}$)
(1) $83 \text{ J}$
(2) $124.5 \text{ J}$
(3) $166 \text{ J}$
(4) $41.5 \text{ J}$
Answer (2)
44. Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is $15 \text{ N m}^{-2}$. The area of cross-section at P and Q are $40 \text{ cm}^2$ and $20 \text{ cm}^2$, respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in $\text{cm}^3 \text{ s}^{-1}$, is:
[Take density of water $= 1000 \text{ kg m}^{-3}$]
(1) $200$
(2) $300$
(3) $400$
(4) $100$
Answer (3)
45. A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is $L_A$ and $L_B$ computed about points A and B, respectively, with $OB = 2 \times OA$. The value of $\frac{L_A}{L_B}$ is:
(1) $\frac{1}{2}$
(2) $1$
(3) $2$
(4) $\frac{1}{4}$
Answer (2)
CHEMISTRY
46. Match the species in List-I with their geometry in List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. $\text{PCl}_5$ | I. Tetrahedral |
| B. $\text{BrF}_5$ | II. Square Planar |
| C. $\text{BF}_4^-$ | III. Trigonal bipyramidal |
| D. $[\text{Ni(CN)}_4]^{2-}$ | IV. Square pyramidal |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (1)
47. The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is
(1) threonine
(2) methionine
(3) serine
(4) leucine
Answer (2)
48. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic $\text{KMnO}_4$ gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.
Statement-II: Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Answer (4)
49. The standard electrode potential ($E^\circ$) for the half-cell reaction $\text{Fe}^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow \text{Fe}^{2+}$ at $298 \text{ K}$ is
(Given: $E^\circ(\text{Fe}^{3+}/\text{Fe}) = -0.04 \text{ V}$ and $E^\circ(\text{Fe}^{2+}/\text{Fe}) = -0.44 \text{ V}$ at $298 \text{ K}$)
(1) $+0.76 \text{ V}$
(2) $-0.48 \text{ V}$
(3) $+0.92 \text{ V}$
(4) $+0.40 \text{ V}$
Answer (1)
50. The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is
Answer (4)
51. For a salt XY, which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of $\Lambda_m$ versus $\sqrt{c}$ has a slope of $-90.0 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-3/2} \text{ L}^{1/2}$ at $298 \text{ K}$. At $0.01 \text{ M}$ concentration of XY, the value of $\Lambda_m$ is $145.0 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$. The limiting molar conductivity of $Y^-$ ion ($\lambda_{Y^-}^0$, in $\text{S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$) at $298 \text{ K}$ will be:
(Given : $\lambda_{X^+}^0 = 74.0 \text{ S cm}^2 \text{ mol}^{-1}$)
(1) $100.0$
(2) $90.0$
(3) $76.0$
(4) $80.0$
Answer (4)
52. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F.
Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to stable half-filled p orbital.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
53. According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is:
(1) $\text{CO} > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{NH}_3 > \text{Cl}^-$
(2) $\text{Cl}^- > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{NH}_3 > \text{CO}$
(3) $\text{Cl}^- > \text{NH}_3 > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{CO}$
(4) $\text{CO} > \text{NH}_3 > \text{H}_2\text{O} > \text{Cl}^-$
Answer (4)
54. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: $[\text{Fe(ox)}_3]^{3-}$ is chiral.
Statement-II: trans-$[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O)}_2\text{(ox)}_2]^-$ is chiral.
(Given: $\text{H}_2\text{ox} = \text{HOOC}-\text{COOH}$)
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Answer (2)
55. For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option:
(1) P and Q are aromatic compounds
(2) If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas
(3) Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds
(4) If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol
Answer (2)
56. For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below.
If the energy of activation is $6.64 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$ and $R = 8.3 \text{ J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$ the temperature at which the rate constant becomes $e^2 \text{ min}^{-1}$ is:
(1) $150 \text{ K}$
(2) $200 \text{ K}$
(3) $250 \text{ K}$
(4) $125 \text{ K}$
Answer (2)
57. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity:
A. $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OCH}_2\text{CH}_3$
B. $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}$
C. $\text{CH}_3\text{COCH}_3$
D. $\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}$
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) $\text{C} < \text{A} < \text{D} < \text{B}$
(2) $\text{C} < \text{A} < \text{B} < \text{D}$
(3) $\text{A} < \text{C} < \text{B} < \text{D}$
(4) $\text{A} < \text{B} < \text{C} < \text{D}$
Answer (3)
58. A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to $\text{N} \rightleftharpoons \text{D}$. At $60^\circ\text{C}$, the concentrations of both N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is $666 \text{ kJ mol}^{-1}$. The standard entropy change ($\Delta S^\circ$ in $\text{kJ K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$) of the protein upon denaturation at $60^\circ\text{C}$ is closest to:
(1) $2000.0$
(2) $333.0$
(3) $11.1$
(4) $2.0$
Answer (4)
59. Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing:
A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult’s law throughout the composition range.
B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only
(2) A only
(3) A and C only
(4) A and B only
Answer (4)
60. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Heating $\text{NaCl}$ with concentrated $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$ and $\text{MnO}_2$ results in oxidation of Mn.
Statement-II: Heating $\text{NaI}$ with concentrated $\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$ and $\text{MnO}_2$ results in reduction of Mn.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Answer (3)
61. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with $\text{Br}_2$ in $\text{CCl}_4$ gives the following product.
Statement II: cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline $\text{KMnO}_4$ gives the following product.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (3)
62. The highest occupied molecular orbital for $\text{Ne}_2$ is:
(1) $\sigma_{2p}$
(2) $\pi_{2p}$
(3) $\sigma_{2p}^*$
(4) $\pi_{2p}^*$
Answer (3)
63. The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with:
(1) empty $\sigma$ and empty $\pi^*$ orbitals
(2) empty $\sigma^*$ and filled $\pi$ orbitals
(3) empty $\sigma^*$ and empty $\pi^*$ orbitals
(4) filled $\sigma$ and filled $\pi$ orbitals
Answer (4)
64. The green paramagnetic species formed by heating $\text{KMnO}_4$ at $513 \text{ K}$ is:
(1) $\text{Mn}_3\text{O}_4$
(2) $\text{MnO}_2$
(3) $\text{KO}_2$
(4) $\text{K}_2\text{MnO}_4$
Answer (4)
65. The correct statement is:
(1) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.
(2) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
(3) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
(4) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.
Answer (4)
66. The correct statement about peptides and proteins is:
(1) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active
(2) In $\beta$-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(3) In $\alpha$-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds
(4) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits
Answer (2)
67. $\text{A} \rightarrow \text{B}$ is a zero-order reaction, where $k = 1.0 \text{ mol L}^{-1} \text{ min}^{-1}$. If the initial concentration of A is $2 \text{ M}$, then the time taken to complete 75% of the reaction will be:
(1) $0.75 \text{ min}$
(2) $1.0 \text{ min}$
(3) $2.0 \text{ min}$
(4) $1.5 \text{ min}$
Answer (4) (Note: The OCR text mistakenly listed Answer 1, but mathematically 75% completion of this zero-order reaction yields 1.5 min)
68. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points.
Reason R: Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
69. Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction ($\psi_r$) against distance ($r$) from the nucleus.
The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A
Answer (2)
70. Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) B and D only
(2) A and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and B only
Answer (1)
71. Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for
(Given: Atomic number of $\text{Ti} = 22$, $\text{Mn} = 25$, $\text{Fe} = 26$ and $\text{Co} = 27$)
(1) $[\text{Fe(CN)}_6]^{3-}$
(2) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}$
(3) $[\text{Ti(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}$
(4) $[\text{Mn(CN)}_6]^{3-}$
Answer (4)
72. The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is
(Given: py = pyridine and en $= \text{H}_2\text{N}-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{NH}_2$)
(1) $[\text{Cr(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}$
(2) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_4(\text{H}_2\text{O)}_2]^{3+}$
(3) $[\text{Ni(en)}_2(\text{H}_2\text{O)}_2]^{2+}$
(4) $[\text{Cr(py)}_3(\text{Cl)}_3]$
Answer (4)
73. A 1:3 electrolyte in an aqueous solution is
(1) $[\text{CoCl(NH}_3)_5]\text{Cl}_2$
(2) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]\text{Cl}_3$
(3) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_3(\text{NO}_2)_3]$
(4) $[\text{CoCl}_2(\text{NH}_3)_4]\text{Cl}$
Answer (2)
74. Consider the reversible processes for $1.0 \text{ mol}$ of an ideal gas as shown in the figure.
$W_1$, $W_2$, $W_3$ and $W_4$ represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; $\Delta U_2$ and $\Delta U_4$ are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively.
[use $R = 2 \text{ cal K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}$]
The correct option is:
(1) $W_2 + W_4 = \Delta U_2 – \Delta U_4$
(2) $W_1 + W_2 = 2T_1 \ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}$
(3) $W_1 + W_2 + W_3 + W_4 = 0$
(4) $W_1 + W_3 = -2T_1 \ln\frac{V_2}{V_1} – 2T_2 \ln\frac{V_4}{V_3}$
Answer (4)
75. In an acidic medium, $10 \text{ mL}$ of $0.25 \text{ M}$ oxalic acid is titrated with $\text{KMnO}_4$ solution. If the volume of $\text{KMnO}_4$ solution required to reach end point is $10 \text{ mL}$, the strength of the $\text{KMnO}_4$ solution is
(1) $0.20 \text{ M}$
(2) $0.25 \text{ M}$
(3) $0.15 \text{ M}$
(4) $0.10 \text{ M}$
Answer (4)
76. The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is
(Given: Atomic numbers of $\text{Ce} = 58$, $\text{Nd} = 60$, $\text{Tb} = 65$ and $\text{Ho} = 67$)
(1) $\text{Ce}^{3+}$
(2) $\text{Tb}^{3+}$
(3) $\text{Ho}^{3+}$
(4) $\text{Nd}^{3+}$
Answer (3)
77. The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is
(1) $\underline{\text{N}}_2\text{O}_5 > \underline{\text{Al}}_2\text{O}_3 > \text{H}_2\underline{\text{S}}$
(2) $\underline{\text{Pb}}\text{O}_2 > \underline{\text{N}}_2\text{O}_3 > \underline{\text{S}}\text{O}_3$
(3) $\underline{\text{P}}_4\text{O}_6 > \underline{\text{Cl}}_2\text{O}_7 > \underline{\text{Al}}\text{H}_3$
(4) $\underline{\text{P}}_4\text{O}_{10} > \underline{\text{S}}\text{O}_3 > \text{H}_2\underline{\text{O}}$
Answer (1)
78. The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride is
(1) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_4]\text{Cl}_3 \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$
(2) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_4(\text{H}_2\text{O})\text{Cl}]\text{Cl}$
(3) $[\text{Co(NH}_3)_4(\text{H}_2\text{O})\text{Cl}]\text{Cl}_2$
(4) $[\text{Co}(\text{NH}_3)_4\text{Cl}_2] \cdot \text{H}_2\text{O}$
Answer (3)
79. Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option:
(1) Compound P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous $\text{AlCl}_3$ and $\text{CH}_3\text{COCl}$
(2) On treatment with bromine water, compound P gives a white precipitate
(3) Compound P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on $\text{BaSO}_4$
(4) On treating compound P with saturated $\text{NaHCO}_3$ solution, brisk effervescence is observed
Answer (3)
80. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, $\Delta_{\text{mix}}H = 0$ and $\Delta_{\text{mix}}V = 0$
Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (2)
81. Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II.
| List I | List II |
| A. vitamin A | I. meat |
| B. vitamin B$_{12}$ | II. sunflower oil |
| C. vitamin E | III. green leafy vegetables |
| D. vitamin K | IV. carrots |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (1)
82. Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is
(1) hepta-1,4-diene
(2) hepta-1,5-diene
(3) hepta-1,6-diene
(4) hepta-1,3-diene
Answer (4)
83. One of the products formed in the following reaction is
Answer (3)
84. Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from $10 \text{ L}$ to $100 \text{ L}$ at $300 \text{ K}$. The values of $\Delta S_{\text{system}}$ and $\Delta S_{\text{surroundings}}$ are
($R$ is universal gas constant)
(1) $\Delta S_{\text{system}} = 4.606 R$; $\Delta S_{\text{surroundings}} = -4.606 R$
(2) $\Delta S_{\text{system}} = 0$; $\Delta S_{\text{surroundings}} = 4.606 R$
(3) $\Delta S_{\text{system}} = 4.606 R$; $\Delta S_{\text{surroundings}} = 0$
(4) $\Delta S_{\text{system}} = 0$; $\Delta S_{\text{surroundings}} = 0$
Answer (3)
85. Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is
(1) $\text{Br} > \text{Cl} > \text{F} > \text{I}$
(2) $\text{Cl} > \text{F} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$
(3) $\text{I} > \text{Br} > \text{Cl} > \text{F}$
(4) $\text{F} > \text{Cl} > \text{Br} > \text{I}$
Answer (2)
86. The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at $298 \text{ K}$ is
| Salt | Ksp at 298 K |
| $\text{AgBr}$ | $5.0 \times 10^{-13}$ |
| $\text{Zn(OH)}_2$ | $1.0 \times 10^{-15}$ |
| $\text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2$ | $1.3 \times 10^{-18}$ |
(1) $\text{AgBr} > \text{Zn(OH)}_2 > \text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2$
(2) $\text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2 > \text{AgBr} > \text{Zn(OH)}_2$
(3) $\text{Zn(OH)}_2 > \text{AgBr} > \text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2$
(4) $\text{Hg}_2\text{Cl}_2 > \text{Zn(OH)}_2 > \text{AgBr}$
Answer (3)
87. Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.
(1) K and L are enantiomers
(2) M and N are geometrical isomers
(3) M and N are stereoisomers
(4) K and L are geometrical isomers
Answer (4)
88. The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of $116 \text{ g}$ of n-butane is
(Given: atomic mass in amu $\text{H}=1$, $\text{C}=12$ and $\text{O}=16$)
(1) $322 \text{ g}$
(2) $176 \text{ g}$
(3) $362 \text{ g}$
(4) $352 \text{ g}$
Answer (4)
89. The numbers $17.0145$ and $21.0235$ were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are
(1) $17.015$ and $21.023$
(2) $17.014$ and $21.024$
(3) $17.015$ and $21.024$
(4) $17.014$ and $21.023$
Answer (2)
90. In potash alum, the ratio of $\text{K}^+$ and $\text{SO}_4^{2-}$ ions is
(1) $2:1$
(2) $2:3$
(3) $3:2$
(4) $1:2$
Answer (4)
91. The number of vertebrae in a human is
(1) 12
(2) 26
(3) 206
(4) 7
Answer (2)
92. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) $\alpha$-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
(2) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
(3) $\beta$-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
(4) $\alpha$-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
Answer (1)
93. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
94. Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct?
(a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis
(b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone
(c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) It does not secrete prolactin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer (1)
95. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Starch | I. Fights infection |
| B. Antibody | II. Energy storage |
| C. Concanavalin A | III. Glucose transport |
| D. Glut-4 | IV. Lectin |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer (1)
96. In water, frogs respire using
(1) buccal cavity
(2) lungs
(3) trachea
(4) skin
Answer (4)
97. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Cristae | I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast |
| B. Cisternae | II. Infoldings in mitochondria |
| C. Thylakoids | III. Cell membrane |
| D. Phospholipid | IV. Disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (1)
98. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of
(1) flowers
(2) fruits
(3) sepals
(4) leaves
Answer (4)
99. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Spherical | I. Vibrio |
| B. Rod | II. Cocci |
| C. Comma | III. Spirilla |
| D. Spirillum | IV. Bacilli |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer (3)
100. Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Nitrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (c), (a), (b), (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Answer (4)
101. Length of the stem at time 0 is $20 \text{ cm}$. The arithmetic growth rate is $30 \text{ cm}$ per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?
(1) $170 \text{ cm}$
(2) $230 \text{ cm}$
(3) $460 \text{ cm}$
(4) $50 \text{ cm}$
Answer (2)
102. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia.
Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (4)
103. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(1) is the major site for the synthesis of lipids
(2) is actively involved in protein synthesis
(3) is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates
(4) has ribosomes attached to its surface
Answer (1)
104. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
(1) Central nervous system is dorsal
(2) Absence of gills
(3) Presence of post anal part (tail)
(4) Presence of notochord
Answer (2)
105. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
(1) $309$
(2) $103$
(3) $412$
(4) $206$
Answer (3)
106. The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is
(1) $\text{G}_1 – \text{M} – \text{G}_2 – \text{S}$
(2) $\text{G}_1 – \text{S} – \text{G}_2 – \text{M}$
(3) $\text{S} – \text{M} – \text{G}_2 – \text{G}_1$
(4) $\text{G}_1 – \text{G}_2 – \text{S} – \text{M}$
Answer (2)
107. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
(1) Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
(2) Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
(3) Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia
(4) Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
Answer (2)
108. Cell theory was formulated by
(1) Robert Brown
(2) Singer and Nicolson
(3) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek
(4) Schleiden and Schwann
Answer (4)
109. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.
Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer (2)
110. Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct?
(a) Do not occur in $C_3$ plants
(b) $\text{CO}_2$ is consumed and $\text{O}_2$ is generated
(c) Phosphoglycolate is formed
(d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a) and (d) only
Answer (1)
Here are questions 121 to 130 from the PDF, perfectly formatted for your WordPress post.
121. Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses
(1) cytosol
(2) mucus
(3) aqueous humor
(4) matrix
Answer (4)
122. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Blood clot consists of fibrins
(2) Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
(3) Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin
(4) Blood coagulates in response to an injury
Answer (3)
123. Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called
(1) sponges
(2) mycorrhiza
(3) chrysophytes
(4) lichens
Answer (4)
124. Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?
(1) Dura mater
(2) Pia mater
(3) Pericardium
(4) Arachnoid
Answer (3)
125. Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?
(1) Kinetin
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Gibberellin
(4) 2, 4-D
Answer (4)
126. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 18
(4) 6
Answer (3)
127. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order.
(a) Genus
(b) Class
(c) Order
(d) Phylum
(e) Family
(f) Kingdom
(g) Species
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)
(2) (g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)
(3) (f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)
(4) (g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
Answer (4)
128. In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 6
Answer (2)
129. Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
(1) Role of air $\rightarrow$ release of oxygen $\rightarrow$ production of glucose $\rightarrow$ absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
(2) Release of oxygen $\rightarrow$ production of glucose $\rightarrow$ absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b $\rightarrow$ role of air
(3) Production of glucose $\rightarrow$ role of air $\rightarrow$ release of oxygen $\rightarrow$ absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
(4) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b $\rightarrow$ production of glucose $\rightarrow$ release of oxygen $\rightarrow$ role of air
Answer (1)
130. Sphenopsida class belongs to
(1) angiosperms
(2) gymnosperms
(3) pteridophytes
(4) bryophytes
Answer (3)
131. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes | I. Meiosis |
| B. Fusion of two nuclei | II. Plasmogamy |
| C. Generation of haploid spores | III. Karyogamy |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I
Answer (4)
132. Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
(1) Blue green algae
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Answer (3)
133. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
134. Genus represents
(1) a population of plants and animals
(2) a group of closely related species
(3) a group of closely related families
(4) an individual plant or animal
Answer (2)
135. Mad cow disease is caused by
(1) viroids
(2) Aspergillus sp.
(3) Mycoplasma sp.
(4) prions
Answer (4)
136. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by
(1) tricuspid valve
(2) bicuspid valve
(3) sino-atrial node
(4) semilunar valve
Answer (1)
137. The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut
(1) due to acidic pH
(2) by proteases
(3) by nucleases
(4) due to alkaline pH
Answer (4)
138. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Transformation | I. Restriction enzyme |
| B. Cloning site | II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria |
| C. Selection | III. Replication |
| D. Ori | IV. Antibiotic |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer (4)
139. How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical angiosperm anther?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 2
Answer (4)
140. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) LH
(4) hCG
Answer (3)
141. Sperm motility is due to
(1) ciliary movement
(2) amoeboid movement
(3) muscular movement
(4) flagellar movement
Answer (4)
142. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.
Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
143. During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the _______ step.
(1) extension
(2) annealing
(3) ligation
(4) denaturation
Answer (2)
144. Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds?
(1) Maize
(2) Barley
(3) Pea
(4) Wheat
Answer (3)
145. For a person with blood group ‘O’, which of the following is not a possible combination of parents’ blood group genotypes?
(1) Father: Ai and Mother: Ai
(2) Father: Bi and Mother: Bi
(3) Father: $I^A I^A$ and Mother: Ai
(4) Father: Ai and Mother: Bi
Answer (3)
146. Which of the following is used as a clot buster?
(1) Penicillin
(2) Cyclosporin A
(3) Statins
(4) Streptokinase
Answer (4)
147. Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.
(a) Plants
(b) Birds
(c) Fishes
(d) Invertebrates
(e) Mammals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)
(2) (e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
(3) (b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)
(4) (c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)
Answer (1)
148. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.
Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (4)
149. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.
Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
150. Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle’s loop are correct?
(a) The descending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.
(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle’s loop.
(c) Reabsorption of $\text{Na}^+$ and water takes place in Henle’s loop.
(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer (*)
151. Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?
(a) Bone marrow
(b) Tonsils
(c) Spleen
(d) Thymus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (b) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
Answer (1)
152. Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe?
(1) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
(2) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
(3) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
(4) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
Answer (3)
153. If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
(1) 36
(2) 54
(3) 72
(4) 18
Answer (2)
154. Sponges exchange $\text{O}_2$ with $\text{CO}_2$ by
(1) moist cuticle
(2) tracheal tubes
(3) gills
(4) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
Answer (4)
155. Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Genital warts
(4) Syphilis
Answer (1)
156. Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?
(1) Synergids
(2) Central cells
(3) Polar nucleus
(4) Antipodals
Answer (1)
157. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Excess growth hormone | I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney |
| B. Luteinizing hormone | II. Contraction of uterus during child birth |
| C. Vasopressin | III. Acromegaly |
| D. Oxytocin | IV. Ovulation |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer (1)
158. The covering of ovum at ovulation is
(1) zona radiata
(2) zona pellucida
(3) chorion
(4) endometrium
Answer (2)
159. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Both species are harmed | I. Predation |
| B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited | II. Mutualism |
| C. Both species are benefited | III. Competition |
| D. One is benefited while the other has no effect | IV. Commensalism |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer (3)
160. Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system?
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Rete testis
Answer (3)
161. Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?
(1) Predators
(2) Herbivores
(3) Carnivores
(4) Parasites
Answer (2)
162. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Abingdon tortoise in islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.
Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
163. Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct?
(1) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
(2) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter
(3) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
(4) Gene i is constitutively expressed
Answer (4)
164. Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?
(1) Reproduces sexually in RBCs
(2) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
(3) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
(4) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
Answer (3)
165. A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is $0.1$, the frequency of AA is:
(1) $0.02$
(2) $0.10$
(3) $0.99$
(4) $0.01$
Answer (4)
166. Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of
(1) convergent evolution
(2) founder effect
(3) genetic drift
(4) divergent evolution
Answer (1)
167. Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in
(1) IgM
(2) IgA
(3) IgD
(4) IgG
Answer (2)
168. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.
Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
169. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.
Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (2)
170. Natural selection can lead to
(a) stabilisation
(b) genetic drift
(c) directional change
(d) disruption
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
Answer (1)
Here are the final questions, 171 to 180, from the PDF, perfectly formatted for your WordPress post.
171. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) (3) Embryo transfer (ET) (4) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Answer (2)
172. Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?
(1) Antibiotics (2) Morphine (3) Anti-retroviral drugs (4) Interferon
Answer (2)
173. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Down’s syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (1)
174. Which of the following is not evidence for evolution?
(1) Paleontological evidence from fossil records (2) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Heckel (3) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs (4) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
Answer (2/4*)
175. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R: Resources are finite. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A (2) A is correct but R is not correct (3) A is not correct but R is correct (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer (4)
176. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer (3)
177. Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the number of cells after 10 generations is:
(1) 5 million (2) 10 million (3) 100 million (4) 1 million
Answer (2)
178. Which of the following statements are Correct? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer (1)
179. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of
(1) acetyl coenzyme A (2) cyclic guanine monophosphate (3) cyclic adenine monophosphate (4) acetyl choline
Answer (4)
180. Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?
(1) RNA polymerase II (2) RNA polymerase III (3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase I
Answer (1)
